On 54 you have a BO T1 and P1 assigned.
Why do you have a P1 on 55 rather than a T1 ?
even though we assigned a P2 to 70, in order to get the PP2,
when it then comes to testing the upper OB level, are we in effect testing...
It's the order then that I'm not getting..
first we assign P2 to 70 and the EE PP2 on 70 ?
(Long on 70)
PPx = assign P1 to next measurable bar......
Corrected 75 (Ba) BM
I'll need to create my own "kill"..."do not post after 3am GMT..."
I must be tired...apologies.
One last try.
If I've dealt with 78 correctly, would 79 be a T2F ?
thx for your patience and feedback...
57 - 81 (?)
60 to 81 (?)
Yes I missed that thank you.
On chart refresh it's a W. Thx
Ok thx, but confusing because wouldn't b39 be a "New P1" re: Rev Chron"left most"...
Lets see how far off I am with this (?)
13 to 40
Yes the fanning after translating bars may be a further distinction:
Meaning if an rtl has originated from translation bars then we do not fan...
Yes I see your point and agree. Well spotted, thx.
The Jack chart was probably not a good example, apologies.
(I find it very difficult to unravel...
Thought I'd do a summary of what's kindly and generously been explained so far re RTL's:
1. Start rtl's from EE bar regardless of which type of...
Ag; "Add Req" Bar.0 is New P1.
To be a New P1 wouldn't 34 need to be higher than 33 ?
Edit: no I think you're correct with Ag:
34 would be New P1...
Lets see how far off this is...
Bars 28 to 43.
Edit: Bar 43 OB
I think it is as you were with 28 = P1 ?
Should B28 be a "W" rather than a P1 ?
Edit: sorry. No the 27 "SQ" would make 28 measurable..
Having seen your posted no gap chart using Sierra,
I noticed that my NT no gap chart isn't always printing the no gaped bar's highs to lows...
B32: Ab ?
I am understanding Jacks quote to mean;
a BO T1 is only a BO T1 if we either:
1) have already had a T1 and then we have a BO of an rtl and /or...
thanks for your posts.
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